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Please correct me if I'm wrong...but I believe shingles is considered a 'reawakening' of a chicken pox virus and, as such, would not respond to antibiotics (meant for bacterial infections). Unless, of course a patient may have contracted a secondary bacterial infection, along with the viral symptoms.

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Notice how despite it supposedly being a virus, it responds to antibiotics?

Terrain theory would point out that shingles and other skin rash conditions are caused by the body trying to eliminate things that couldn't be done by the normal ways in the blood.

That's why the COVID jabbed can get shingles. Their bodies are trying to eliminate the LNPs and other junk.

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Great observation.

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I thought the same thing. I have recently read, however that the antibiotic azithromycin has anti viral properties. ThatтАЩs why itтАЩs part of the covid protocol.

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Oops sorry about that. It was years ago. I think my GP said antibiotics. I don't remember the exact name. All it mattered to me (at that time) was whether it worked or not :-P

The situation was I started to feel sharp pains in my buttocks. No physical causes like falling from stairs. She examined and noticed a tiny tiny spot. Her quick assessment was it could be highly likely to be Shingles. And it was on Friday afternoon before the bank holiday weekend. She felt the urge to prescribe the medication before she was 100% sure after the long weekend. (Certainly I didn't want to go to the A&E in the UK. It's awful there)

Judging from the description of Shingles and I contracted chicken pox in my childhood, I think she was right about the diagnosis.

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